ENT Secrets: Lightyear (Part 2 of 4)
Flashcards
196 questions
Medicine & Health Sciences > Otolaryngology
by Sean Valentine
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Flashcards (196)
Card 1
What is the most commonly affected subsite for laryngeal cancer?
Answer
Glottis
Card 2
What are the vertical subdivisions of the Larynx?
Answer
Supraglottis
Glottis
Subglottis
Card 3
What is the most common site of Glottic cancers?
Answer
True vocal cords
Card 4
What are the primary risk factors for Laryngeal cancer?
Answer
Tobacco
Alcohol
Card 5
What is the most common malignancy in the larynx?
Answer
Squamous cell carcinoma
Card 6
Where in the glottis does laryngeal cancer typically arise?
Answer
True vocal cords
Card 7
What are the synergistic risk factors for laryngeal cancer?
Answer
Tobacco
Alcohol
Card 8
Which portion of the glottis has bilateral lymphatic drainage?
Answer
Supraglottis
Card 9
The Supraglottis has ____ (uni/bi)lateral lymphatic drainage
Answer
bi
Card 10
Which muscle is immediately deep to the Parotid gland?
Answer
Masseter
Card 11
Which muscle is just posterior to the Parotid gland?
Answer
Sternocleidomastoid
Card 12
Which nerve innervates the Parotid gland?
Answer
CN IX
Card 13
Wharton duct drains which salivary gland?
Answer
Submandibular gland
Card 14
Most salivary gland stones occur in which salivary glands?
Answer
Submandibular glands
Card 15
What is the most common benign salivary gland tumor?
Answer
Pleomorphic adenoma
Card 16
What is the most common malignant tumor of the salivary glands?
Answer
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Card 17
What is the typical impetus for Frey syndrome?
Answer
Surgery near the parotid glands
Card 18
Which condition involves gustatory sweating often after surgery near the parotid glands?
Answer
Frey syndrome
Card 19
The Parotid gland is superficial to which muscle?
Answer
Masseter muscle
Card 20
The External carotid artery branches into which branches in the parotid gland?
Answer
Maxillary artery
Superficial temporal artery
Card 21
Inside which structure does the external carotid artery branch into the superficial temporal artery and the maxillary artery?
Answer
Parotid gland
Card 22
____ is also known as Stensen duct
Answer
The Parotid duct
Card 23
The Parotid duct is also known as ____
Answer
Stensen duct
Card 24
The Glossopharyngeal nerve innervates which salivary gland(s)?
Answer
Parotid gland
Card 25
Chorda tympani innervates which salivary gland(s)?
Answer
Submandibular gland
Sublingual gland
Card 26
Which microbe is the most common cause of bacterial acute suppurative sialadenitis?
Answer
Staph aureus
Card 27
What is the most common viral infection of the parotid gland?
Answer
Mumps
Card 28
Which autoimmune condition will show excess lymphocytes in the salivary glands?
Answer
Sjogren syndrome
Card 29
What is the initial treatment for a salivary gland mass?
Answer
FNA
Imaging (MRI or CT)
Card 30
Which type of biopsy is used to diagnose salivary gland masses?
Answer
FNA
Card 31
Frey syndrome occurs after which surgical procedure?
Answer
Parotidectomy
Card 32
What is the most common parotid abnormality associated with HIV?
Answer
Benign lymphoepithelial cyst
Card 33
Which type of parotid cystic disease is most associated with HIV?
Answer
Benign lymphoepithelial cyst
Card 34
What is the most common malignancy of the thyroid?
Answer
Papillary carcinoma
Card 35
Which thyroid cancer derives from the Parafollicular cells?
Answer
Medullary carcinoma
Card 36
Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid derives from which cell type?
Answer
Parafollicular (C-cells)
Card 37
What is the initial workup for all thyroid nodules?
Answer
Ultrasound
TSH
Card 38
Which bones make up the nasal septum?
Answer
Ethmoid
Vomer
Maxillary crest
Card 39
Which bone makes up the Superior region of the nasal septum?
Answer
Ethmoid
Card 40
Which bone makes up the Inferior region of the nasal septum?
Answer
Vomer
Card 41
Which bones make up the Hard palate?
Answer
Palatine
Palatine process of Maxilla
Card 42
What is hidden?
Answer
See the picture.
Card 43
What is hidden?
Answer
See the picture.
Card 44
What is hidden?
Answer
See the picture.
Card 45
What is hidden?
Answer
See the picture.
Card 46
What type of epithelium lines the paranasal sinuses?
Answer
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar (respiratory) epithelium
Card 47
The Opthalmic artery is a branch of which artery?
Answer
Internal carotid artery
Card 48
The superior and middle nasal turbinates are part of which bone?
Answer
Ethmoid bone
Card 49
Which structure separates the orbit from the Ethmoid air cells?
Answer
Lamina papyracea
Card 50
Which bony structure forms the medial border of the orbit?
Answer
Lamina papyracea
Card 51
Which structure separates the anterior and posterior ethmoid sinuses?
Answer
Basal lamella
Card 52
Which cartilaginous structure forms the most anterior portion of the septal wall?
Answer
Quadrangular cartilage
Card 53
Which branch of the Ophthalmic artery supplies part of the nasal septum?
Answer
Ethmoidal arteries
Card 54
Ethmoidal arteries are branches of which branch of the internal carotid artery?
Answer
Ophthalmic artery
Card 55
The Sphenopalatine artery is a terminal branch of ____
Answer
the Maxillary artery
Card 56
The Sphenopalatine artery is a terminal branch of which artery?
Answer
Maxillary artery
Card 57
Which arteries supply the majority of the superior nasal septum?
Answer
Ethmoidal arteries
Card 58
Posterior epistaxis most commonly originates from which artery?
Answer
Sphenopalatine artery
Card 59
What is used to cauterize blood vessels to treat epistaxis in children?
Answer
Silver nitrate
Card 60
Which vessel forms the inferior portion of Kiesselbach plexus?
Answer
Superior labial artery
Card 61
The Superior labial artery is a branch of which artery?
Answer
Facial artery
Card 62
Which vessels comprise Kiesselbach plexus?
Answer
Anterior ethmoidal artery
Sphenopalatine artery
Superior labial artery
Card 63
Which alpha agonist is often used to hasten hemostasis in epistaxis?
Answer
Oxymetazoline
Card 64
What is the dividing line between anterior and posterior epistaxis?
Answer
Maxillary sinus ostium
Card 65
Which condition is rebound congestion from long-term use of intranasal decongestants?
Answer
Rhinitis medicamentosa
Card 66
Nasal sprays should be limited to what duration to prevent Rhinitis medicamentosa?
Answer
3 to 5 days
Card 67
Which molecule when found in otorrhea indicates CSF leak?
Answer
β2 transferrin
Card 68
Presence of which molecule can be assessed to determine if rhinorrhea is due to a CSF leak?
Answer
β2 transferrin
Card 69
Hormonal rhinitis is most associated with which condition?
Answer
Pregnancy
Card 70
Which condition involves rhinorrhea after eating?
Answer
Gustatory rhinitis
Often seen following ingestion of spicy foods
Card 71
What is the only disease-modifying treatment available for allergic rhinitis?
Answer
Immunotherapy
Card 72
Which nerve containing taste fibers travels through the middle ear?
Answer
Chorda tympani
Card 73
The Stapes touches which opening to communicate with the inner ear?
Answer
Oval window
Card 74
Which nerve innervates the Stapedius muscle?
Answer
CN VII
Causes hyperacusis in patients with CN VII lesions
Card 75
Which nerve innervates the Tensor tympani muscle?
Answer
CN V₃
Card 76
Which muscle in the middle ear is innervated by CN V₃?
Answer
Tensor tympani
Card 77
Which muscle in the middle ear is innervated by CN VII?
Answer
Stapedius
Card 78
What are the two cochlear fluids?
Answer
Perilymph
Endolymph
Card 79
Which Cochlera fluid has similar electrolyte composite to extracellular fluid?
Answer
Perilymph
Card 80
Which Cochlera fluid has similar electrolyte composite to intracellular fluid?
Answer
Endolymph
Card 81
What structure produces endolymph and releases it into the cochlea?
Answer
Stria vascularis
Card 82
Which hillocks of His form the Tragus?
Answer
1
Card 83
Which hillocks of His form the Helix?
Answer
2,3
Card 84
Which hillocks of His form the Antihelix?
Answer
4,5
Card 85
Which hillocks of His form the Antitragus?
Answer
6
Card 86
____ is a sensory nerve which fuses with the facial nerve in the Internal acoustic meatus
Answer
The Intermediate nerve
Card 87
____ is the first ganglion formed by the Facial nerve
Answer
The Geniculate ganglion
Card 88
What is the first ganglion formed by the Facial nerve?
Answer
Geniculate ganglion
Card 89
Which nerves does the facial nerve give rise to in the Facial canal?
Answer
Greater Petrosal nerve
Nerve to Stapedius
Chorda tympani
Card 90
What is the first nerve that the Facial nerve branches to in the Facial canal?
Answer
Greater petrosal nerve
Card 91
What is the first extracranial branch of the facial nerve?
Answer
Posterior auricular nerve
Card 92
Through which opening does Chorda tympani exit the skull?
Answer
Petrotympanic fissure
Card 93
Which nerve exits the skull through the Petrotympanic fissure?
Answer
Chorda tympani
Card 94
Which membrane is the supporting structure on which the organ of Corti rests?
Answer
Basilar membrane
Card 95
At which level of the neural hearing pathway does information decussate become bilateral?
Answer
Superior olivary complex
Card 96
CN VII is located in which quadrant of the Internal acoustic meatus?
Answer
Anterior-superior
Card 97
Which bony structure separates the CN VII from the Vestibular nerve in the Internal acoustic meatus?
Answer
Bill's bar
Card 98
Which artery travels into the Internal acoustic meatus?
Answer
Labyrinthine artery
Card 99
Which muscle lies in the Superficial cervical fascia?
Answer
Platysma
Card 100
What is the most lateral content of the Carotid Sheath?
Answer
Internal jugular vein
Card 101
What is the most medial content of the Carotid Sheath?
Answer
Carotid artery
Card 102
What lies between the Common carotid artery and Internal jugular vein in the Carotid sheath?
Answer
Vagus nerve
Card 103
What is the most common major complication of a Deep Neck Space Infection?
Answer
Mediastinitis
Card 104
Which clinical finding refers to the reduced ability to open the mouth?
Answer
Trismus
Card 105
Which condition is infectious thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein?
Answer
Lemierre syndrome
Card 106
Lemierre syndrome is infectious thrombophlebitis of ____ (which structure?)
Answer
the internal jugular vein
Card 107
What is the most common pathogen causing Lemierre syndrome?
Answer
Fusobacterium
Card 108
What is the treatment for Lemierre syndrome?
Answer
Metronidazole + Penicillin
Typically caused by Fusobacterium
Card 109
Which imaging modality is used to diagnose Lemierre syndrome?
Answer
Contrast-enhanced CT
Card 110
Infections with which microbe cause drainage of "sulfur granules" from sinus tracts?
Answer
Actinomyces
Card 111
What is the most common etiology of DNSI in adults?
Answer
Odontogenic infections
Card 112
Which Carbapenem has the least activity against Pseudomonas?
Answer
Ertapenem
Note- other Carbapenems are more effective at targeting Pseudomonas
Card 113
Which Cephalosporin(s) can treat MRSA?
Answer
Ceftaroline
Card 114
Which type of papillae on the tongue do not sense taste?
Answer
Filiform
Card 115
Which cell type composes the olfactory epithelium?
Answer
Pseudostratified columnar epithelial tissue
Card 116
Olfactory sensory neurons are ____ (uni/bi)polar
Answer
bi
Card 117
Olfactory neurons pass through which structure in the skull?
Answer
Cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone
Card 118
Which structure divides IIA and IIB lymph nodes in the neck?
Answer
Spinal accessory nerve (CN XI)
Card 119
Which lymph node level includes the upper third of the Internal Jugular Vein?
Answer
II
Card 120
Which structure defines the border of level III and IV lymph nodes?
Answer
Omohyoid muscle
Card 121
Daily chyle leak output above what value requires surgical exploration?
Answer
> 500 ml
Card 122
What is the superior surgical border of level III lymph nodes?
Answer
Inferior border of the Hyoid bone
Card 123
What is the inferior surgical border of level III lymph nodes?
Answer
Inferior border of the cricoid cartilage
Card 124
What is the superior border of level IV lymph nodes?
Answer
Inferior border of the cricoid cartilage
Card 125
Sparing one or more of which structures defines a Modified radical neck dissection from radical?
Answer
CN XI
SCM
IJV
Card 126
Sparing of CN XI, IJV, or SCM defines which type of neck dissection?
Answer
Modified radical neck dissection
Card 127
Which type of neck dissection only removes the nodal groups at highest risk (not I through V)?
Answer
Selective neck dissection
Card 128
Which type of neck dissection is performed after incomplete response to Chemotherapy and/or radiation?
Answer
Salvage neck dissection
Card 129
How is Ohngren line defined?
Answer
Medial canthus of the eye
Angle of the mandible
Maxillary sinus tumors above the line have worse prognosis
Card 130
Prognosis for which type of tumor can be evaluated by comparing its location to Ohngren Line?
Answer
Maxillary tumors
Card 131
What is the most common benign tumor of the nasal cavity?
Answer
Inverted papilloma
Card 132
Nasal inverted papillomas can progress to which malignancy?
Answer
Squamous cell carcinoma
Card 133
Which nasal tumor is found exclusively in adolescent males?
Answer
Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma (JNA)
Card 134
Which sinonasal tumor is associated with wood/leather dust exposure?
Answer
Adenocarcinoma
Card 135
Which exposures can increase the risk of acquiring Adenocarcinoma?
Answer
Wood/leather dust
Card 136
The borders of Ohngren line is from ____ to ____
Answer
the medial canthus of the eye
the angle of the mandible
Card 137
Which type of nasal papilloma is associated with HPV infection?
Answer
Inverted papilloma
Card 138
Inverted papilloma is associated with which type of infection?
Answer
HPV
Card 139
Which nasal sinus is the most common location for Adenocarcinoma?
Answer
Ethmoid sinuses
Card 140
Which structure produces CSF?
Answer
Choroid plexus
Located in the lateral ventricles
Card 141
What are the layers of the meninges?
Answer
Dura mater
Arachnoid
Pia mater
Card 142
ICA enters the skull through which opening?
Answer
Carotid canal
Card 143
What are the terminal branches of the ICA?
Answer
Anterior and Middle cerebral arteries
Card 144
Which structure passes through Foramen lacerum?
Answer
Greater petrosal nerve
Card 145
The Greater petrosal nerve exits the skull via which foramen?
Answer
Foramen lacerum
Card 146
Which cranial nerves travel through the Cavernous sinus?
Answer
III
IV
V₁
V₂
VI
Card 147
What is the most common head and neck manifestation of lymphoma?
Answer
Painless lymph node enlargement
Card 148
Mediastinal adenopathy can cause hoarseness due to ____
Answer
recurrent laryngeal nerve compression
Card 149
Cervical lymph nodes over which size should be biopsied for suspected lymphoma?
Answer
>2 cm
Card 150
Which type of biopsy of cervical lymph nodes is preferred in suspected lymphomas?
Answer
Excisional biopsy
Card 151
What are the most common microbes that cause Acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?
Answer
Strep pneumo
H. influenza
Moraxella catarrhalis
Card 152
What is the recommended empiric antimicrobial therapy for Acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?
Answer
Amoxicillin-Clavulanate (Augmentin)
Card 153
What is the Group I complication of rhinosinusitis?
Answer
Preseptal cellulitis
Card 154
What is the Group II complication of rhinosinusitis?
Answer
Orbital cellulitis
Card 155
What is the Group III complication of rhinosinusitis?
Answer
Subperiosteal abscess
Card 156
What is the Group IV complication of rhinosinusitis?
Answer
Orbital abscess
Card 157
What is the Group V complication of rhinosinusitis?
Answer
Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Card 158
Benzocaine can cause which hematologic adverse effect?
Answer
Methemoglobinemia
Card 159
Septoplasty is usually not performed until what age?
Answer
16 years
Card 160
Which physical exam maneuver can determine if nasal obstruction is located in the nasal valve?
Answer
Cottle manuever
Card 161
Cottle manuever determines if obstruction is at which level?
Answer
Nasal valve
Card 162
What are the most common causes of surgically correctable nasal airway obstruction?
Answer
Deviated nasal septum
Inferior turbinate hypertrophy
Card 163
What is the 1st lamella of sinus surgery?
Answer
Uncinate process
Card 164
What is the 2nd lamella of sinus surgery?
Answer
Ethmoidal bulla
Card 165
What is the 4th lamella of sinus surgery?
Answer
Superior turbinate
Card 166
Which classification system is used to describe the depth of the olfactory fossa?
Answer
Keros classification
Card 167
What does the Keros classification system describe?
Answer
Depth of the olfactory fossa
Card 168
Which structure connects the Fovea ethmoidalis to the cribiform plate?
Answer
Lateral lamella
Card 169
The lateral lamella of the cribiform plate attaches to which structure laterally?
Answer
Fovea ethmoidalis
Card 170
Which antibiotic potentiates the ototoxic effect of Aminoglycosides?
Answer
Vancomycin
However, it is minimally ototoxic itself
Card 171
What is the first symptom of Otoxicity?
Answer
Tinnitus
Card 172
What is the treatment for sudden SNHL?
Answer
Steroids
Card 173
At what frequency is the Carhart Notch?
Answer
2000 Hz
Card 174
Carhart Notch on audiogram indicates which condition?
Answer
Otosclerosis
Card 175
What is the classic audiogram finding in Otosclerosis?
Answer
Carhart Notch
Card 176
Which condition involves fixation of the Stapes footplate in the oval window?
Answer
Otosclerosis
Card 177
What are the most common newborn hearing screening tests?
Answer
Otoacoustic emissions (OAE)
Auditory brainstem response (ABR)
Card 178
What is the most common abnormal imaging finding in children with SNHL?
Answer
Enlarged vestibular aqueduct
Card 179
Which diuretics are most associated with ototoxicity?
Answer
Loop diuretics
Card 180
Which test of hearing assesses EEG patterns in response to sound?
Answer
ABR
Card 181
Pulsatile tinnitus suggests which etiology?
Answer
Vascular
Card 182
Which medications are most commonly associated with causing tinnitus?
Answer
Aminoglycosides
Salicylates
Card 183
What is the most common vascular neoplasm causing pulsatile tinnitus?
Answer
Glomus tumor
Card 184
What are the most common causative organisms for Otitis externa?
Answer
Pseudomonas
Staph aureus
Card 185
What is the first-line treatment for Acute otitis media?
Answer
Amoxicillin
Card 186
During myringotomy and PE tube placement in which quadrant of the TM should the incision be made?
Answer
Anterior-inferior
Card 187
What are the most common microbes to cause Acute otitis media?
Answer
Strep pneumo
H. influenza
Moraxella
Card 188
What is the first-line therapy for Otitis externa?
Answer
Fluoroquinolone ear drops
Card 189
Which condition is bullae or vesicular inflammation of the TM due to viral or bacterial infection?
Answer
Bullous myringitis
Card 190
What is the most predominant symptom of Bullous myringitis?
Answer
Ear pain
Card 191
Which complication of Acute otomastoiditis occurs when the infection erodes to the attachment of the Sternocleidomastoid?
Answer
Bezold abscess
Card 192
What are the most common indications for Mastoidectomy?
Answer
Cholesteatoma
Mastoiditis
Card 193
What is the anterior border of the facial recess?
Answer
Chorda tympani
Card 194
What is the posterior border of the facial recess?
Answer
Facial nerve
Card 195
What is the superior border of the facial recess?
Answer
Incus buttress
Card 196
Absence of which structure indicates the need for a Total ossicular chain reconstruction rather than partial?
Answer
Stapes suprastructure
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