Which structure(s) is/are involved in the cellulitis of Ludwig angina?
Answer
Submandibular space
Card 2
What is the space between the root of the tongue and the epiglottitis?
Answer
Vallecula
Card 3
What is involved in the pharmacological treatment of Mast-cell mediated Angioedema?
Answer
Antihistamines
Corticosteroids
Epinephrine
Card 4
Which drug is used in the long-term treatment of Hereditary Angioedema?
Answer
Danazol
Card 5
What is the most common comorbid condition with Malignant otitis externa?
Answer
Diabetes mellitus
Additionally, patients who are immunocompromised are more predisposed
Card 6
What is the hallmark physical exam finding in Malignant otitis externa?
Answer
Granulation tissue in the inferior external auditory canal at the bone-cartilage junction
Card 7
What is the most common cranial nerve affected by Malignant otitis externa?
Answer
Facial nerve (CN VII)
Card 8
What is the floor of the Sublingual space?
Answer
Mylohyoid muscle
Card 9
The Submandibular space is divided into which subunits?
Answer
Sublingual space
Submaxillary space
Card 10
What divides the two subunits of the Submandibular space?
Answer
Mylohyoid muscle
Card 11
Which potential space is above the Mylohyoid muscle?
Answer
Sublingual space
Card 12
Which potential space is below the Mylohyoid muscle?
Answer
Submaxillary space
Card 13
Which muscle is just inferior to the Mylohyoid muscle?
Answer
Anterior belly of the digastric
Card 14
What is hidden?
Answer
See the picture.
Card 15
What is hidden?
Answer
See the picture.
Card 16
What is hidden?
Answer
See the picture.
Card 17
What is hidden?
Answer
See the picture.
Card 18
What is hidden?
Answer
See the picture.
Card 19
What is hidden?
Answer
See the picture.
Card 20
What is a rare life-threatening iatrogenic injury related to a Tracheotomy?
Answer
Tracheoinnominate-fistula
Card 21
How long after a Tracheostomy does a Tracheoinnominate-fistula occur?
Answer
Within 3 weeks
Card 22
What is the definitive treatment for a Tracheoinnominate-fistula?
Answer
Ligation of the innominate artery
Card 23
What is the biggest risk factor for Acute Epiglottitis?
Answer
Lack of immunization to Hib
Card 24
What is the classic description of the epiglottis in Acute epiglottitis?
Answer
Cherry-red epiglottis
Card 25
Which condition classically has a Cherry-red epiglottis?
Answer
Acute epiglottitis
Card 26
What is the antibiotic regiment recommended for Acute epiglottis?
Answer
2/3rd generation Cephalosporin
Anti-Staph antibiotic against MRSA
Ex= Vancomycin/Clindamycin
Card 27
What can be used for prophylaxis from Hib?
Answer
Rifampin
Can also be used for Meningococcus prophylaxis
Card 28
Rifampin can be used for prophylaxis for which bacteria?
Answer
Meningococcus
H. influenza
Card 29
Which type of Angioedema is refractory to Antihistamines, Corticosteroids, Epinephrine, and Steroids?
Answer
Hereditary Angioedema
However, this will be effective against Mast cell-mediated angioedema
Card 30
What are the major risk factors for Malignant Otitis Externa?
Answer
Diabetes
Immunosuppression
Card 31
What are the potential complications of Malignant Otitis Externa?
Answer
Osteomyelitis of the skull base
Facial nerve palsy
Osteomyelitis can then cause paralysis of other cranial nerves, abscesses, or venous sinus thrombosis
Card 32
What is the treatment for Malignant Otitis Externa?
Answer
High dose anti-pseudomonal antibiotics
Surgical debridement
Card 33
Which classes of antibiotics are typically used to treat Malignant Otitis Externa?
Answer
Fluoroquinolones
Aminoglycosides
Anti-pseudomonal antibiotics are used to treat Malignant Otitis Externa
Card 34
What are the most common microbes to cause Ludwig angina?
Answer
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Bacteroides
Card 35
Is Ludwig angina often polymicrobial?
Answer
Yes!
Polymicrobial infection occurs in over 50% of cases. The most commonly cultured organisms include Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, and Bacteroides species.
Card 36
Which salivary gland is located just superior to the Mylohyoid muscle?
Answer
Sublingual gland
Card 37
The Sublingual gland is located just superior to which muscle?
Answer
Mylohyoid muscle
Card 38
What is the most common site for tracheoinnominate fistula formation?
Answer
Level of the endotracheal cuff
Card 39
What can be done to stop bleeding from tracheoinnominate fistula while waiting for ligation?
Answer
Overinflate cuff
Insert cuff distally
Insert finger to manually tamponade
Card 40
Which facial sinuses are the first to develop in utero?
Answer
Maxillary
Card 41
Which facial sinuses are the last to develop?
Answer
Frontal sinuses
Card 42
Which facial sinuses do not reach adult size until the teenage years?
Answer
Frontal
Sphenoid
Card 43
Which facial sinuses are present at birth?
Answer
Maxillary sinuses
Ethmoid sinuses
Card 44
What are the most anterior of the Ethmoid air cells?
Answer
Agger nasi
Card 45
Which tongue papillae are located at the junction of the anterior 2/3 and posterior 1/3 of the tongue?
Answer
Circumvallate
Card 46
Which tongue papillae are located at the tip and lateral edges of the tongue?
Answer
Fungiform
Card 47
Which tongue papillae are located at the posterolateral base of the tongue?
Answer
Foliate
Card 48
Which tongue papillae are located all over the tongue?
Answer
Filiform
Card 49
Which tongue papillae do not participate in taste sensation?
Answer
Filiform
Card 50
What is the location of the Circumvallate tongue papillae?
Answer
Junction of anterior 2/3 and posterior 1/3 of the tongue
Card 51
What is the location of the Fungiform tongue papillae?
Answer
Tip and lateral edges of tongue
Card 52
What is the location of the Foliate tongue papillae?
Answer
Posterolateral base of tongue
Card 53
What is the location of the Filiform tongue papillae?
Answer
All over tongue
Card 54
What is the best imaging modality for the temporal bone?
Answer
Noncontrast CT
Card 55
What is the best imaging modality for the cerebellopontine angle?
Answer
MRI
Card 56
What is the best imaging modality for the thyroid?
Answer
Ultrasound
Card 57
What is the first branch of the external carotid artery in the neck?
Answer
Superior thyroid artery
Card 58
What is the most distal branch of the external carotid artery in the neck?
Answer
Superficial temporal artery
Card 59
At which age do the Sphenoid sinuses begin to develop?
Answer
3 years of age
Card 60
At which age do the Frontal sinuses begin to develop?
Answer
5 years of age
Card 61
Which normal variant is the most posterior ethmoid air cell?
Answer
Sphenoethmoidal (Onodi) air cell
Card 62
The Sphenoethmoidal (Onodi) air cell can be adjacent to which structures, which is important to realize during surgery?
Answer
Optic nerve
Carotid artery
Card 63
Which air cell forms when the ethmoid pneumatizes into the medial and inferior orbital walls?
Answer
Haller cell
Card 64
Haller cell forms when the ethmoid pneumatizes into ____
Answer
the medial and inferior orbital walls
Card 65
Where does CN VII exit the skull?
Answer
Stylomastoid foramen
Card 66
Which cranial nerve exits the skull via the Stylomastoid foramen?
Answer
CN VII
Card 67
In the Parotid gland, the Facial nerve divides into which two divisions?
Answer
Temporofacial division
Cervicofacial division
Card 68
The Submandibular glands produce mostly ____ (serous/mucinous) saliva
Answer
both serous and mucinous
Card 69
Which salivary gland produces both serous and mucinous saliva?
Answer
Submandibular gland
Whereas the Parotid gland produces serous, and the sublingual gland produces mucinous saliva
Card 70
What is the anterior border of the Submandibular triangle?
Answer
Anterior belly of the digastric muscle
Card 71
What is the posterior border of the Submandibular triangle?
Answer
Posterior belly of the digastric muscle
Card 72
What is the superior border of the Submandibular triangle?
Answer
Mandible
Card 73
What is the superior border of the Submental triangle?
Answer
Anterior belly of the diagastric muscle
Card 74
What is the inferior border of the Submental triangle?
Answer
Hyoid bone
Card 75
The Anterior belly of the digastric muscle and the hyoid bone define which triangle of the neck?
Answer
Submental triangle
Card 76
What defines level I lymph nodes in the neck?
Answer
Submandibular and Submental triangles
Card 77
What is the inferior border of level II lymph nodes in the neck?
Answer
Hyoid bone
Card 78
What is the inferior border of level III lymph nodes in the neck?
Answer
Level of the cricoid cartilage
Card 79
Where is the location of level V lymph nodes in the neck?
Answer
Posterior triangle of the neck
Card 80
What is the lateral border of the level VI lymph nodes in the neck?
Answer
Carotid arteries
Card 81
What is the superior border of the level VI lymph nodes in the neck?
Answer
Hyoid bone
Card 82
What is the inferior border of the level VI lymph nodes in the neck?
Answer
Suprasternal notch
Card 83
What are the borders of the Posterior triangle of the neck?
Answer
Posterior border of the SCM
Trapezius
Middle 1/3 of the clavicle
Card 84
Which muscle is the only vocal fold abductor?
Answer
Posterior cricoarytenoid
Card 85
Which imaging is needed to diagnose a peritonsillar abscess?
Answer
None!
Card 86
What is the relationship between the Tragal pointer and the Facial nerve?
Answer
Facial nerve is 1 cm deep, anterior, and inferior to the Tragal pointer
Card 87
The facial nerve is 1 cm deep, anterior, and inferior to which surgical landmark?
Answer
Tragal pointer
Card 88
What are the most important surgical landmarks to identify the main trunk of the Facial nerve?
Answer
Tragal pointer
Tendon of the posterior belly of the digastric muscle
Tympanomastoid suture line
Card 89
What is the embryological derivative of the Superior parathyroid glands?
Answer
Fourth branchial pouch
Card 90
What is the embryological derivative of the Inferior parathyroid glands?
Answer
Third branchial pouch
Card 91
What are the layers of the vocal fold?
Answer
Squamous epithelium
Lamina propria
Thyroarytenoid/Vocalis muscle
Card 92
Which layers of the vocal fold form the cover?
Answer
Squamous epithelium
Superficial lamina propria
Card 93
Which layers of the vocal fold form the vocal ligament?
Answer
Intermediate lamina propria
Deep lamina propria
Card 94
The intermediate and deep lamina propria form which structure?
Answer
Vocal ligament
Card 95
Which stages of sleep are more prevalent in patients with Obstructive sleep apnea?
Answer
Stage I
Stage II
Card 96
In OSA how long must breathing cessation last to be considered an apneic event?
Answer
≥10 seconds
Card 97
Which endocrine conditions predispose patients to OSA?
Answer
Hypothyroidism
Acromegaly
Card 98
Which scale can be used to assess daytime sleepiness for the diagnosis of OSA and Narcolepsy?
Answer
Epworth sleepiness scale
Card 99
Which exam is used to evaluate the location of obstruction of the airway in OSA?
Answer
Muller maneuver
Card 100
What defines the Apnea-hypopnea index (AHI)?
Answer
Number of obstructive apneic of hypopneic episodes in an hour
Card 101
In OSA, during which stages of sleep do obstructive events occur?
Answer
Stage III
Stage IV
REM
Card 102
Which GI condition can predispose patients to OSA?
Answer
GERD
Card 103
____ was previously known as Wegener granulomatosis
Answer
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)
Card 104
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) was previously known as ____
Answer
Wegener granulomatosis
Card 105
Which autoimmune condition is associated with increased levels of ACE?
Answer
Sarcoidosis
Card 106
Which age range is the most common for diagnosis of Sarcoidosis?
Answer
20 to 40 years old
Card 107
What is a common finding on chest radiographs in Sarcoidosis?
Answer
Hilar lymphadenopathy
Card 108
c-ANCA is associated with which vasculitis?
Answer
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener)
Card 109
Which sinonasal granulomatous disease is associated with eosinophilia?
Answer
Eosinophilic granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
(Churg-Strauss syndrome)
Card 110
What are the leading causes of death in Churg-Strauss syndrome?