Sign Up Free

Med-Surg Ch.20: Genitourinary and Reproductive Systems

Multiple Choice 20 questions Medicine & Health Sciences > Medical-Surgical Nursing by Sean Valentine
Study this material interactively with flashcards, quizzes, and games on GabaBrain.
Study on GabaBrain

Multiple Choice (20)

Question 1
A teenager arrives with sudden, severe testicular pain, scrotal swelling and vomiting that began during a soccer game. What is the nurse's priority action?
  • Notify the provider immediately ✓
  • Apply a scrotal support and recheck later
  • Collect a urine specimen for culture
  • Teach testicular self-examination
Correct Answer
Notify the provider immediately
Sudden severe scrotal pain in an adolescent suggests testicular torsion, a twisting of the spermatic cord that cuts off blood flow; without prompt ultrasound and surgery the testicle can die. Apply a scrotal support and recheck later wastes time the testicle does not have. Collect a urine specimen for culture fits an infection, not an emergency of blood supply. Teach testicular self-examination is screening teaching, not emergency care. Category: Male Reproductive Disorders
Question 2
Which finding is the typical presentation of testicular cancer?
  • Sudden severe scrotal pain
  • A painless, hard testicular lump ✓
  • Burning on urination
  • Discharge from the penis
Correct Answer
A painless, hard testicular lump
Testicular cancer usually appears as a painless, hard lump, sometimes with a heavy feeling in the scrotum or a dull lower abdominal ache. Sudden severe scrotal pain suggests torsion. Burning on urination suggests a urinary or sexually transmitted infection. Discharge from the penis points to infections such as gonorrhea or chlamydia. Category: Male Reproductive Disorders
Question 3
A young adult notices a new lump on one testicle. Which test is typically done first to evaluate it?
  • Prostate-specific antigen level
  • Urine culture
  • Scrotal ultrasound ✓
  • Semen analysis
Correct Answer
Scrotal ultrasound
Ultrasound of the scrotum shows whether a testicular mass is solid and needs further workup, and tumor marker blood tests are often drawn with it. Prostate-specific antigen level screens for prostate disease, not testicular masses. Urine culture looks for urinary infection. Semen analysis evaluates fertility, not a lump. Category: Male Reproductive Disorders
Question 4
A patient seeks care for erectile dysfunction. Which screening is commonly included in the evaluation?
  • Semen analysis
  • Prostate biopsy
  • Testicular tumor markers
  • Screening for depression and anxiety ✓
Correct Answer
Screening for depression and anxiety
Erectile dysfunction is diagnosed mainly from the patient's report, and most patients are screened for depression and anxiety because psychological disorders can cause it and the condition itself causes distress. Semen analysis evaluates fertility, not erections. Prostate biopsy is used when cancer is suspected. Testicular tumor markers are drawn when testicular cancer is suspected. Category: Male Reproductive Disorders
Question 5
Why are patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia prone to recurrent urinary tract infections?
  • Urine remains in the bladder after voiding ✓
  • The prostate releases bacteria into the urine
  • The enlarged gland shortens the urethra
  • Prostate fluid makes the urine more acidic
Correct Answer
Urine remains in the bladder after voiding
The enlarged gland presses on the urethra so the bladder cannot empty completely, and stagnant urine lets bacteria multiply and stones form. The prostate releases bacteria into the urine is not how these infections develop. The enlarged gland shortens the urethra is wrong; it narrows the urethra. Prostate fluid makes the urine more acidic is not a cause of the infections. Category: Prostate Disorders
Question 6
A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia wakes several times a night to urinate. Which teaching helps reduce this problem?
  • Drink a large glass of water at bedtime
  • Limit fluids in the evening before bed ✓
  • Drink coffee with the evening meal
  • Hold urine as long as possible in the daytime
Correct Answer
Limit fluids in the evening before bed
Staying hydrated during the day but cutting back on fluids in the evening reduces nocturia, along with limiting caffeine and alcohol, which act as diuretics. Drink a large glass of water at bedtime would fill the bladder overnight. Drink coffee with the evening meal adds a diuretic late in the day. Hold urine as long as possible in the daytime promotes overfilling; a regular voiding schedule is taught instead. Category: Prostate Disorders
Question 7
A patient returns from a transurethral resection of the prostate with an indwelling catheter. Which nursing action helps prevent a urinary tract infection?
  • Clamping the catheter for long periods
  • Hanging the drainage bag above the bladder
  • Performing meticulous catheter care ✓
  • Disconnecting the tubing to empty the bag
Correct Answer
Performing meticulous catheter care
Meticulous catheter care, with a closed drainage system kept below the bladder, is a main intervention to prevent infection after prostate surgery. Clamping the catheter for long periods lets urine and clots back up and can distend the bladder. Hanging the drainage bag above the bladder lets urine flow back into it. Disconnecting the tubing to empty the bag breaks the closed system and lets bacteria in. Category: Prostate Disorders
Question 8
A patient newly diagnosed with prostate cancer asks the nurse which treatment he should choose. What is the nurse's role?
  • Recommend the treatment the nurse would choose
  • Tell him to accept whatever the oncologist decides
  • Advise waiting until symptoms appear to decide
  • Help him understand the options, risks and benefits ✓
Correct Answer
Help him understand the options, risks and benefits
The nurse supports decision making by explaining options such as watchful waiting, radiation, hormone therapy and surgery along with their risks and benefits, but the decision belongs to the patient. Recommend the treatment the nurse would choose replaces the patient's judgment with the nurse's. Tell him to accept whatever the oncologist decides ignores his right to an informed choice. Advise waiting until symptoms appear to decide is not the nurse's call and could delay needed treatment. Category: Prostate Disorders
Question 9
A patient newly diagnosed with a sexually transmitted infection seems ashamed and avoids eye contact. Which nursing approach is best?
  • Respond without judgment and ensure privacy ✓
  • Explain how risky the patient's choices were
  • Avoid discussing the diagnosis further
  • Suggest telling family members right away
Correct Answer
Respond without judgment and ensure privacy
Stigma keeps patients from seeking testing and treatment, so the nurse offers private, nonjudgmental care and attends to the patient's emotional needs. Explain how risky the patient's choices were adds shame and can shut down open communication. Avoid discussing the diagnosis further leaves needed teaching undone. Suggest telling family members right away takes away the patient's control over private health information. Category: Sexually Transmitted Infections
Question 10
Besides sexual contact, how can syphilis be transmitted?
  • Sharing drinking glasses
  • Contact with open lesions or infected blood ✓
  • Breathing in respiratory droplets
  • Sitting on a toilet seat
Correct Answer
Contact with open lesions or infected blood
The bacterium that causes syphilis spreads through sexual contact, exposure to infected blood and direct contact with open skin lesions, so lesions are not touched with bare hands. Sharing drinking glasses does not spread it. Breathing in respiratory droplets is not a route of transmission. Sitting on a toilet seat does not transmit it. Category: Sexually Transmitted Infections
Question 11
When taking a sexual health history, the nurse asks whether the patient hopes to have children in the future. Which area of the history does this question address?
  • Partners
  • Practices
  • Pregnancy intention ✓
  • Protection
Correct Answer
Pregnancy intention
The pregnancy intention part of a sexual history covers future childbearing wishes and contraception. Partners refers to the number of current and past partners. Practices covers the types of sexual activity and related risks. Protection covers barrier methods, prevention discussions and vaccinations such as HPV and hepatitis B. Category: Sexually Transmitted Infections
Question 12
Scarring of the fallopian tubes from pelvic inflammatory disease raises the risk of which life-threatening complication?
  • Ovarian cancer
  • Uterine fibroids
  • Breast abscess
  • Ectopic pregnancy ✓
Correct Answer
Ectopic pregnancy
Damaged tubes can trap a fertilized egg, so it implants outside the uterus, most often in the tube, where it can rupture and bleed. Pelvic inflammatory disease also causes infertility. Ovarian cancer is not the complication that tubal scarring produces. Uterine fibroids are benign smooth muscle tumors with an unknown cause. Breast abscess is unrelated to pelvic infection. Category: Female Reproductive Disorders
Question 13
A patient with uterine fibroids reports very heavy periods, fatigue and pale skin. Which laboratory test is most relevant?
  • Complete blood count ✓
  • Serum amylase
  • Urine culture
  • Thyroid antibodies
Correct Answer
Complete blood count
Heavy menstrual bleeding from fibroids can cause anemia, and a complete blood count shows the hemoglobin and hematocrit; iron or transfusion may be needed. Serum amylase evaluates the pancreas. Urine culture looks for urinary infection. Thyroid antibodies are used to diagnose autoimmune thyroid disease, not blood loss. Category: Female Reproductive Disorders
Question 14
A patient with large uterine fibroids reports urinary frequency and trouble emptying the bladder. What explains these symptoms?
  • Spread of cancer cells to the bladder wall
  • Pressure from the enlarged uterus on the bladder ✓
  • A sexually transmitted infection of the urethra
  • Low estrogen thinning the urethral lining
Correct Answer
Pressure from the enlarged uterus on the bladder
Fibroids enlarge the uterus, which presses on the nearby bladder and causes frequency, retention and difficulty emptying; pressure on the bowel can also cause constipation. Spread of cancer cells to the bladder wall is not how fibroids cause symptoms. A sexually transmitted infection of the urethra would cause burning and discharge and is unrelated to fibroids. Low estrogen thinning the urethral lining is a change after menopause, not an effect of fibroids. Category: Female Reproductive Disorders
Question 15
After breast cancer surgery that included removal of axillary nodes, which complication should the nurse monitor for in the arm on the affected side?
  • Raynaud phenomenon
  • Gouty arthritis
  • Lymphedema ✓
  • Carpal tunnel syndrome
Correct Answer
Lymphedema
Removing axillary nodes disrupts lymph drainage from the arm, so swelling of the limb on the same side as the cancer, called lymphedema, is a key postoperative complication along with hematoma and infection. Raynaud phenomenon is a vasospastic disorder triggered by cold or stress. Gouty arthritis comes from uric acid crystals. Carpal tunnel syndrome is median nerve compression at the wrist. Category: Breast Cancer
Question 16
Which breast finding is considered a late sign of breast cancer?
  • A small, hard, nontender lump
  • A slight size difference between breasts
  • Tender lumps that change with the menstrual cycle
  • Nipple retraction ✓
Correct Answer
Nipple retraction
As a tumor grows and stretches surrounding tissue, late signs appear: nipple retraction, skin dimpling, changes in skin color or texture and nipple discharge. A small, hard, nontender lump is the usual early sign. A slight size difference between breasts is normal. Tender lumps that change with the menstrual cycle suggest benign changes rather than cancer. Category: Breast Cancer
Question 17
A patient with chronic kidney disease has new shortness of breath, crackles and swollen ankles. What should the nurse do first?
  • Raise the head of the bed and notify the provider ✓
  • Encourage extra oral fluids
  • Lay the patient flat to rest
  • Offer a salty snack to raise blood pressure
Correct Answer
Raise the head of the bed and notify the provider
Crackles and dyspnea with edema signal fluid overload reaching the lungs, so the nurse raises the head of the bed to ease breathing and alerts the provider, who may order diuretics or dialysis. Encourage extra oral fluids would add to the overload. Lay the patient flat to rest worsens breathing when fluid is in the lungs. Offer a salty snack to raise blood pressure adds sodium, which holds more fluid. Category: Dialysis and Kidney Disease
Question 18
Why is continuous cardiac monitoring often used during and after hemodialysis?
  • To measure the volume of fluid removed
  • To detect dysrhythmias from rapid fluid and electrolyte shifts ✓
  • To detect clotting inside the dialyzer
  • To track oxygen saturation
Correct Answer
To detect dysrhythmias from rapid fluid and electrolyte shifts
Dialysis rapidly changes potassium and other electrolytes and fluid volume, which can trigger dysrhythmias, so telemetry is often used. To measure the volume of fluid removed is done by the dialysis machine and weights, not a cardiac monitor. To detect clotting inside the dialyzer is a function of the machine's pressure alarms. To track oxygen saturation requires pulse oximetry, not cardiac monitoring. Category: Dialysis and Kidney Disease
Question 19
During hemodialysis, a patient reports feeling lightheaded and dizzy. Which complication does the nurse suspect?
  • Fluid overload from the dialysate
  • Hypertensive crisis from fluid shifts
  • Hypotension from rapid fluid removal ✓
  • Hyperkalemia from potassium gain
Correct Answer
Hypotension from rapid fluid removal
Removing fluid quickly lowers blood pressure, one of the most common complications of dialysis, which is why antihypertensives may be held before treatment. Fluid overload from the dialysate is wrong because dialysis removes fluid. Hypertensive crisis from fluid shifts is not what lightheadedness during fluid removal suggests. Hyperkalemia from potassium gain is wrong because dialysis lowers potassium. Category: Dialysis and Kidney Disease
Question 20
A critically ill patient with acute kidney injury has unstable blood pressure and needs kidney replacement therapy. Which method is indicated?
  • Standard intermittent hemodialysis
  • Nightly home peritoneal dialysis
  • Immediate kidney transplantation
  • Continuous renal replacement therapy ✓
Correct Answer
Continuous renal replacement therapy
Continuous renal replacement therapy filters the blood slowly and continuously, so it suits hemodynamically unstable patients who cannot tolerate rapid fluid and waste removal. Standard intermittent hemodialysis removes fluid quickly and can worsen hypotension. Nightly home peritoneal dialysis is a long-term outpatient method. Immediate kidney transplantation is not a treatment for an unstable acute injury. Category: Dialysis and Kidney Disease

Ready to study Med-Surg Ch.20: Genitourinary and Reproductive Systems?

Study with flashcards, play quiz games, challenge your friends, and track your progress.

Start Studying Free