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Pharmacology Ch.1: Introduction to Pharmacology

Multiple Choice 20 questions Medicine & Health Sciences > Pharmacology by Sean Valentine
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Multiple Choice (20)

Question 1
Labeling metoprolol a beta-adrenergic blocker places it in which kind of drug classification?
  • Pharmacologic classification ✓
  • Therapeutic classification
  • Controlled substance schedule
  • Pregnancy risk category
Correct Answer
Pharmacologic classification
A pharmacologic classification describes how a drug works in the body, its mechanism of action, and metoprolol works by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors. Therapeutic classification groups drugs by the condition they treat, such as antihypertensive. Controlled substance schedule ranks drugs by abuse potential, which does not apply to metoprolol. Pregnancy risk category was a former FDA fetal-risk letter system, not a description of mechanism. Category: Drug Classification
Question 2
When a drug is described as an antihypertensive, it is being classified according to what?
  • Its mechanism of action
  • The condition it treats ✓
  • Its chemical structure
  • Its potential for abuse
Correct Answer
The condition it treats
Therapeutic classification groups drugs by their clinical indication, so an antihypertensive is any drug used to lower blood pressure. Its mechanism of action is the basis of pharmacologic classification instead. Its chemical structure is the basis of the chemical name, not a therapeutic class. Its potential for abuse determines a DEA schedule. Category: Drug Classification
Question 3
Which drug name is assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council and is preferred in practice for safety?
  • Chemical name
  • Brand name
  • Generic name ✓
  • Street name
Correct Answer
Generic name
Each drug has a single U.S. generic name, assigned by the U.S. Adopted Names Council, and using it reduces confusion between products. Chemical name describes molecular structure and is used mainly by chemists. Brand name is created by the manufacturer, and one drug may have several. Street name is slang for illicit drugs and has no clinical role. Category: Drug Sources and Forms
Question 4
Oxycodone has an accepted medical use but a high potential for abuse and dependence. In which DEA schedule is it placed?
  • Schedule I
  • Schedule III
  • Schedule IV
  • Schedule II ✓
Correct Answer
Schedule II
Schedule II drugs, such as oxycodone, fentanyl and methylphenidate, have accepted medical uses but high abuse and dependence potential. Schedule I is reserved for drugs with no accepted medical use, such as heroin. Schedule III includes drugs with moderate to low dependence potential, such as ketamine and anabolic steroids. Schedule IV includes lower-risk drugs such as benzodiazepines and tramadol. Category: Drug Regulation
Question 5
Which feature defines a Schedule I controlled substance such as heroin?
  • No accepted medical use in the United States ✓
  • The lowest potential for misuse
  • Sale without a prescription
  • Moderate dependence potential
Correct Answer
No accepted medical use in the United States
Schedule I drugs have the highest abuse potential and no currently accepted medical use, so ordinary prescribers cannot prescribe them. The lowest potential for misuse describes Schedule V. Sale without a prescription is impossible for Schedule I drugs, which cannot be legally prescribed or sold. Moderate dependence potential describes Schedule III. Category: Drug Regulation
Question 6
In which stage of drug development is a new drug first given to a small group of people, usually healthy volunteers?
  • Preclinical testing
  • Phase I ✓
  • Phase III
  • Phase IV
Correct Answer
Phase I
Phase I trials are the first human studies and enroll a small group, usually healthy volunteers, to examine safety and how the body handles the drug. Preclinical testing is done in animals and laboratory models before any human receives the drug. Phase III enrolls large numbers of people with the condition to confirm effectiveness and safety. Phase IV takes place after approval. Category: Drug Development
Question 7
Which stage of drug development continues after FDA approval to detect adverse effects in the general population?
  • Phase I
  • Phase II
  • Phase IV ✓
  • Phase III
Correct Answer
Phase IV
Phase IV, also called postmarketing surveillance, monitors a drug once it is in wide use, when rare adverse effects can surface that smaller trials missed. Phase I tests the drug in a small group of usually healthy volunteers. Phase II tests it in people who have the target condition. Phase III is the large-scale trial completed before the New Drug Application is reviewed. Category: Drug Development
Question 8
An FDA-approved generic drug is allowed to differ from its brand-name equivalent in which component?
  • Active ingredient
  • Strength
  • Dosage form
  • Inactive ingredients ✓
Correct Answer
Inactive ingredients
A generic must match the brand-name drug in active ingredient, strength, dosage form, safety, quality and intended use, but its inactive ingredients, such as fillers and dyes, may differ. Active ingredient must be the same for the generic to be equivalent. Strength must also match. Dosage form must match as well, so a tablet generic is compared to a tablet brand. Category: Drug Sources and Forms
Question 9
Which statement correctly describes a biosimilar product?
  • It is highly similar to an approved biologic but not identical ✓
  • It is an exact chemical copy of a brand-name tablet
  • It is an herbal product sold as a dietary supplement
  • It is a synthetic drug made without living cells
Correct Answer
It is highly similar to an approved biologic but not identical
Biosimilars are large, complex molecules made from living organisms after a reference biologic's patent expires, and the maker must show similarity rather than exact identity. An exact chemical copy of a brand-name tablet describes a generic drug. An herbal product sold as a dietary supplement is not a biologic and is not FDA approved. A synthetic drug made without living cells is the opposite of how biosimilars are produced. Category: Drug Sources and Forms
Question 10
Which route of administration provides immediate and complete absorption of a drug into the bloodstream?
  • Intramuscular
  • Intravenous ✓
  • Subcutaneous
  • Transdermal
Correct Answer
Intravenous
An intravenous drug enters the circulation directly, so absorption is immediate and complete. Intramuscular absorption depends on the drug's solubility and blood flow to the muscle. Subcutaneous absorption is also limited by solubility and local blood flow and is generally slower. Transdermal delivery moves the drug slowly through the skin over hours. Category: Drug Sources and Forms
Question 11
A client asks the nurse to crush an enteric-coated tablet so it is easier to swallow. Which response by the nurse is correct?
  • Crush it and mix it into applesauce
  • Crush it and dissolve it in juice
  • Do not crush it; ask the pharmacist about another form ✓
  • Let the client chew it before swallowing
Correct Answer
Do not crush it; ask the pharmacist about another form
Enteric-coated and time-release tablets must stay intact, so the nurse withholds crushing and checks with the pharmacist or provider about a form the client can swallow. Crush it and mix it into applesauce destroys the coating. Crush it and dissolve it in juice destroys the coating the same way. Let the client chew it also breaks the coating, which can irritate the stomach or change how the drug is released. Category: Drug Sources and Forms
Question 12
Why are older adults at increased risk for drug toxicity?
  • Faster gastric emptying
  • Increased gastric acidity
  • Increased renal blood flow
  • Declining liver and kidney function ✓
Correct Answer
Declining liver and kidney function
Most drugs are metabolized by the liver or excreted by the kidneys, so age-related decline in these organs can prolong drug effects and cause accumulation. Faster gastric emptying is incorrect, because gut transit slows with age. Increased gastric acidity is incorrect, because acidity decreases with age. Increased renal blood flow is incorrect, because kidney function declines. Category: Special Populations
Question 13
A client loses wages after missing two weeks of work because of an illness. Which type of health care cost does this represent?
  • Indirect cost ✓
  • Direct medical cost
  • Direct nonmedical cost
  • Intangible cost
Correct Answer
Indirect cost
Indirect costs are losses of income or productivity caused by illness. Direct medical cost covers visits, treatments and hospital stays. Direct nonmedical cost covers nonmedical expenses such as travel, food and lodging for out-of-town care. Intangible cost refers to hard-to-measure burdens such as pain and suffering. Category: Socioeconomic Factors
Question 14
Pediatric drug doses are commonly calculated using which measurements?
  • Age in years only
  • Body weight or body surface area ✓
  • Head circumference
  • Half of the adult dose
Correct Answer
Body weight or body surface area
Because children vary widely in size, pediatric doses are commonly calculated per kilogram of body weight or by body surface area, and the math should be double-checked. Age in years only ignores large size differences between children of the same age. Head circumference is a growth measure, not a dosing basis. Half of the adult dose is an unsafe shortcut with no physiologic basis. Category: Special Populations
Question 15
What replaced the FDA's letter-based pregnancy categories (A, B, C, D and X) on drug labels?
  • A numbered risk scale from 1 to 10
  • A color-coded warning system
  • Narrative pregnancy and lactation labeling ✓
  • A list of drugs cleared for pregnancy
Correct Answer
Narrative pregnancy and lactation labeling
The Pregnancy and Lactation Labeling Rule replaced the letter categories with narrative summaries of risk and supporting data for pregnancy and breastfeeding. A numbered risk scale from 1 to 10 has never been an FDA labeling system. A color-coded warning system is not used either. A list of drugs cleared for pregnancy does not exist, since no drug is considered completely safe in pregnancy. Category: Special Populations
Question 16
The 1962 Kefauver-Harris Amendments, passed after a sedative caused severe birth defects, added which requirement for drug manufacturers?
  • Proof that a drug is inexpensive
  • Proof that a drug is plant-derived
  • Proof that a drug has a brand name
  • Proof that a drug is effective ✓
Correct Answer
Proof that a drug is effective
The Kefauver-Harris Amendments required manufacturers to demonstrate effectiveness and gave the FDA tighter control over drug testing. Proof that a drug is inexpensive has never been an approval requirement. Proof that a drug is plant-derived is irrelevant, since drugs come from many sources. Proof that a drug has a brand name is not required for approval. Category: Drug Regulation
Question 17
A client taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) begins taking St. John's wort. Which complication should the nurse watch for?
  • Serotonin syndrome ✓
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Bradycardia
Correct Answer
Serotonin syndrome
St. John's wort increases serotonin activity, and combining it with an SSRI can cause serotonin syndrome. Hypoglycemia is not a recognized result of this combination. Hyperkalemia is linked to drugs that affect potassium handling, not to this herb. Bradycardia is not the characteristic risk, since serotonin excess more often speeds the heart. Category: OTC and Herbal Drugs
Question 18
Which over-the-counter drug is also found in many prescription opioid combination products, creating a risk of exceeding its daily maximum and causing liver damage?
  • Ibuprofen
  • Acetaminophen ✓
  • Naproxen
  • Diphenhydramine
Correct Answer
Acetaminophen
Acetaminophen is combined with opioids such as hydrocodone in many prescription products, so adding an over-the-counter acetaminophen product can push the total past the safe daily limit and injure the liver. Ibuprofen is an NSAID whose concerns include GI bleeding and kidney injury rather than this liver risk. Naproxen is also an NSAID with similar concerns. Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine known mainly for causing sedation. Category: OTC and Herbal Drugs
Question 19
A provider prescribes a drug for a condition that is not listed on its FDA-approved label. What is this practice called?
  • Generic substitution
  • Compounding
  • Off-label use ✓
  • Polypharmacy
Correct Answer
Off-label use
Off-label use means prescribing outside the FDA-approved labeling, such as for a different condition, population, dose or route, and the nurse monitors the client closely. Generic substitution means dispensing a generic in place of a brand-name product. Compounding means a pharmacist prepares a customized formulation. Polypharmacy means a client takes many drugs at once. Category: Drug Development
Question 20
A client with limited English proficiency needs teaching about a new medication. Which action by the nurse is correct?
  • Ask the client's teenage child to interpret
  • Speak louder and more slowly in English
  • Give a written handout in English only
  • Use a trained medical interpreter ✓
Correct Answer
Use a trained medical interpreter
A trained medical interpreter conveys medical information accurately and confidentially, and family members should be avoided as interpreters when possible. Asking the client's teenage child to interpret risks errors and places a burden on a minor. Speaking louder and more slowly in English does not overcome a language barrier. A written handout in English only fails a client who does not read English well. Category: Socioeconomic Factors

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